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Re: [newmellotrongroup] MK VI Sounds

2011-01-21 by lsf5275@aol.com

Because you can't put all of the Chamberlin sounds in a Chamberlin at one  
time and there is no frame swapping in a Chamberlin. So if you put 
Chamberlin  sounds on a frame and play it in a Mellotron, it wont sound the same... 
it's  cheating. The Chamberlin used different heads than the M400/Mark VI. So 
 therefore, Markus most likely is digitizing Chamberlin sounds from the 
master  tapes because it would take forever to do it any other way. So the 
impendence is  going to be different, and the dynamics applied to the sounds 
that are the  result of actually triggering the tapes with keys and having them 
pass  over the original tape heads and capstan are going to be missing. It 
may still  sound cool, but it isn't the same.
 
 
In a message dated 1/21/2011 5:58:44 P.M. Eastern Standard Time,  
rmrmax@yahoo.com writes:

 
 
 
Why can't he; I don't understand ?

--- On Fri,  1/21/11, lsf5275@aol.com <lsf5275@aol.com> wrote:


From:  lsf5275@aol.com <lsf5275@aol.com>
Subject: Re:  [newmellotrongroup] Re: OT- NAMM 2011
To:  newmellotrongroup@yahoogroups.com
Date: Friday, January 21, 2011,  4:46 PM


 
Because Markus can't put every sound in a Mark VI and can't make  realistic 
Chamberlin sounds that way.
 
 
In a message dated 1/21/2011 4:23:29 P.M. Eastern Standard Time,  
tomdcour@amnh.org writes:

 
I wonder why he would do that, the samples he provided for Nord  were
made using a Mk VI

> If so, that would seem to  explain some of the EQ differenced noted by
>  Berington.

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