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Subject: Re: [newmellotrongroup] MK VI Sounds

From: lsf5275@aol.com
Date: 2011-01-22

Because you can't put all of the Chamberlin sounds in a Chamberlin at one time and there is no frame swapping in a Chamberlin. So if you put Chamberlin sounds on a frame and play it in a Mellotron, it wont sound the same... it's cheating. The Chamberlin used different heads than the M400/Mark VI. So therefore, Markus most likely is digitizing Chamberlin sounds from the master tapes because it would take forever to do it any other way. So the impendence is going to be different, and the dynamics applied to the sounds that are the result of actually triggering the tapes with keys and having them pass over the original tape heads and capstan are going to be missing. It may still sound cool, but it isn't the same.
 
In a message dated 1/21/2011 5:58:44 P.M. Eastern Standard Time, rmrmax@yahoo.com writes:
 

Why can't he; I don't understand ?

--- On Fri, 1/21/11, lsf5275@aol.com <lsf5275@aol.com> wrote:

From: lsf5275@aol.com <lsf5275@aol.com>
Subject: Re: [newmellotrongroup] Re: OT- NAMM 2011
To: newmellotrongroup@yahoogroups.com
Date: Friday, January 21, 2011, 4:46 PM

 

Because Markus can't put every sound in a Mark VI and can't make realistic Chamberlin sounds that way.
 
In a message dated 1/21/2011 4:23:29 P.M. Eastern Standard Time, tomdcour@amnh.org writes:
 

I wonder why he would do that, the samples he provided for Nord were
made using a Mk VI

> If so, that would seem to explain some of the EQ differenced noted by
> Berington.