exponential conversion with both feet
SION IVOR JONES
sion at argonet.co.uk
Thu Jul 17 22:34:33 CEST 1997
Hello,
this my first post and going to jump in with both feet!
Seems to be a bit of mystery surrounding exponential convertion
and temp compensation ect.. I've been trying to nail it down
and think I grasped it, so I thought I'd share my thoughts on
the subject, and hopefully recieve some thoughts back?
Theres quite a bit of maths but Ive try to explain each
step, and anyway you can't beat a nice little mathmatical
proof (okay maybey not).
I'm using my brothers email address so I'm not on the list but
I download the archive about once a week to keep up. I did subscribe for a day
and got about 12 emails and my brother flipped. anyway here goes.
Exponential conversion!
=======================
Firstly a quick look at the "Ebers Moll" equation
=================================================
Ic is the current flowing into the collector
Is is the saturation current of the transistor
Vbe is the voltage from base to emitter
q is the charge of an electron
k is boltzmans constant
T is absolute Temperature
and we have
Ic = Is ( exp( Vbe q / k T ) - 1 )
asumption 1:
If we assume Vbe to greater than 300mV then the
exponential term "exp( Vbe q / k T )" is very
large (greater than 100,000 at room temp!), so
we can ignore the -1 term, and we can rewrite
the equation thus:
Ic = Is exp( Vbe q / k T ) eq1
Now look at a long tailed pair
==============================
| | Iref
| | <--- Iout
| V *-----------
| |
| |
**** ****
Vin ----*Q1* *Q2*------*
**** **** |
| | -----
| Ve | ---
*------*------* -
|
|
Two NPN transistors with their emiters tied together.
Base of Q2 at tied to ground.
Vin tied to the base of Q1.
Current Iref flowing into collector of Q1.
Current Iout flowing into collector of Q2.
VbeQ1 = Vin - Ve
VbeQ2 = 0V -Ve
and
VbeQ1 - VbeQ2 = (Vin - Ve) - (0V - Ve)
VbeQ1 - VbeQ2 = Vin - Ve - 0V + Ve
VbeQ1 - VbeQ2 = Vin eq2
The current Iref ( from a constant current source)
programs VbeQ1, and VbeQ1 and Vin (eq2) program VbeQ2
which reuslts in current Iout.
Now consider the ratio Iref / Iout and eq1
Iref IsQ1 exp( VbeQ1 q / k T ) eq3
---- = -------------------------
Iout IsQ2 exp( VbeQ2 q / k T )
asumption 2:
If we have well matched transistors and
close thermal matching ( ie on the same
chip ) we can assume that;
IsQ1 = IsQ2
so eq3 becomes
Iref exp( VbeQ1 q / k T )
---- = --------------------
Iout exp( VbeQ2 q / k T )
but exp( a )
-------- = exp ( a - b)
exp( b )
so eq3 now becomes
Iref
---- = exp ( (VbeQ1 q / k T) - ( VbeQ2 q / k T ) )
Iout
so we now have
Iref
---- = exp ( (VbeQ1 - VbeQ2) q / k T )
Iout
but eq2 is
VbeQ1 - VbeQ2 = Vin
so we finally have
Iref
---- = exp ( Vin q / k T ) eq4
Iout
So the ratio of Iref to Iout is an exponential
funtion Vin. And at Vin = 0V drift from temperature
is fully compensated. But the larger Vin the greater
the effects of temperature. When Vin is posetive you
get posetive temp drift and when its negative you get
negative temp drift.
So the long tailed pair compensates for the temp
dependance of the saturation current Is but not for
temp dependance of Vbe. But the temp dependance of
Vbe does cancel out with equal collector currents.
So we need to compensate Vbe. We can do this by
introduce temperature depence to Vin. If we
can make Vin into Vin * T then eq 4 becomes;
Iref
---- = exp ( Vin T q / k T )
Iout
and then
Iref
---- = exp ( Vin q / k )
Iout
Most of this is from chapter 2
"The Art Of Electronics" (Harowitz and Hill)
check out fig 2.53 page 91
and sec 4.14 is also relevant.
Is there anything I hav'nt considerd?
Also where can get get the kit/specs the the ASM-1, would like
to check it out.
Oh yeah my name is Chris, and I probably wouldn't say half as much if you met
me in the pub.
--
sion at argonet.co.uk http://www.argonet.co.uk/users/sion
========================================================
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